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I think Andreas' point there is just that, if one accepts that comma and semicolon are equivalent in this case, then one must also accept that the two original examples
a = b, c = d, e = f;
and a = b; c = d; e = f;
become formally identical, thereby showing that it's meaningless to suggest one may be more optimal than the other.
Well being formally identical does not guarantee identical code. Presumably this peculiar advice came from a compiler where they were treated in identical manner. Nothing in the standard requires identical code in these two cases.
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