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Re: SGI releases IA64 C C++ and F90 compiler under GPL
- To: dje at watson dot ibm dot com
- Subject: Re: SGI releases IA64 C C++ and F90 compiler under GPL
- From: Mike Stump <mrs at windriver dot com>
- Date: Mon, 22 May 2000 15:49:50 -0700 (PDT)
- Cc: bkorb at sco dot COM, espie at quatramaran dot ens dot fr, gcc at gcc dot gnu dot org, toon at moene dot indiv dot nluug dot nl
> To: Mike Stump <mrs@windriver.com>
> Date: Mon, 22 May 2000 17:53:59 -0400
> From: David Edelsohn <dje@watson.ibm.com>
> >>>>> Mike Stump writes:
> I think the crux of this question is the legal definition of "use".
> The Developer may use the Works. Does that include re-distribute
> and license to third parties? Rights to use the Works is different
> than title to the Works.
Irrelevant, I can do it without using clause d above.
> Also, it is unclear whether the non-exclusive ownership of the code
> that you sell in your example results in joint ownership. Are you
> diluting your original ownership?
I sell non-joint non-exclusive ownership of the code. I make this
clear in the sales agreement. It is clear, as I write it, my lawyers
review it, and they sign off on it, and I explain exactly what it
means to the party I sell it to, in extensive detail until they
understand and I ensure their laywers read it and sign off on it and I
am I sure they both understand my intentions.
I don't understand the second part of your question. I sign no clause
that restricts in any way any of my rights under the law to the code,
except for the one obvious one, I can't claim I have not ever sold the
code before. I before selling them for the first time, I could sign a
sales contract selling my right to the code with the assertion that
this is the first sale or transfer. After doing the sale, I could not
sign such a clause, this is the only limitation I enter into.
> This discussion now is about words for which we do not understand
> the legal definition
I think I understand what I write. I do play a lawyer on the net.
> this is a legal contract, not common American English language and
> usage.
I know that. I was using the same notion a laywer would take, not en
English professor.
> Arguing about legal issues without defining and understanding the
> terminology is useless.
I think I understand it, correct me if you think I am wrong.